The discussion, not my position, was that the gift is either (1) salvation or (2) grace, but certainly not (3) faith being referred to. These are evidently not unusual interpretation preferences, nor evidently unimportant to some believers who insist the antecedent to "...that..." in ".... through faith; and that not of yourselves ...," simply cannot be (3) faith. It has to be one of the other two. Does anyone here have a strong feeling about whether the antecedent of "that" is "faith?" You cannot know how many times I have made that bold claim in talking to people at for example the weekly assisted living center Bible studies I lead, and in other discussions with Christians for decades. It was never questioned before, so I started looking into online sources. I wonder if my Systematic Theology book disagrees with me... I may let you know. I always took this verse to mean that His grace and salvation was the gift of God when you have faith. That has just always been my interpretation on the verse. We can see in verses 5 & 6 leading up to verse 8 are speaking about the grace and salvation in Christ. Then in verse 8 it tells us that His grace is a gift and cannot be earned. Sorry, me ....... still working on "is"! TR Yes, the “that” is the faith needed. Faith not in ourselves to earn our way to heaven but faith in who Christ is and his shed blood. “But without faith it is impossible to please him: for he that cometh to God must believe that he is, and that he is a rewarder of them that diligently seek him.” “That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.” John 1:9 Yes, the faith that leads to salvation is a gift. Anything else would lead to boasting, and God will not allow that to be a part of our redemption. Some choose to act upon the light they are given, and some choose to ignore it. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prevenient_grace The topic generates some friction between Calvinists and Arminians. 
